For all of you who grew up with the "thou shalt"s and "who goeth therefore"s of the King James Bible might find this article interesting. I know my first bible was a King James Version and I probably NEVER thought about who King James was or why it was called that. Interesting enough, he was an English king but the KJV is called by a different name in England.
I have done lots of reading about the Tudor era. Been to Hampton Court Palace numerous times and have contemplated the start of the Protestant religion and the split with the Roman Catholic church. Read about Guy Fawkes day (which I've also blogged about regarding the fire works in November and the plot to blow up Parliament - all in efforts to control the religion of the land). The KJV of the Holy Bible is related to all of that. This TIMES article sheds some light on how it came to be and why it came to be.
article from the London Times newspaper Saturday edition. Click on article address
http://www.timesonline.co.uk/tol/comment/faith/article5728368.ece
I find this statement interesting....
"The translators were under strict instructions. They were forbidden to add marginal notes. They were ordered to ensure that the translation conformed to Church of England doctrine and reflected traditional usage. For a King newly arrived from Scotland, himself no mean scholar, the work was to be his way of impressing on his new subjects his authority and his piety." ...
The article goes on to say how accurate the translation was. So was it made to conform to a specific CofE doctrine or is it accurate??????
Tuesday, 17 February 2009
King James Bible
Posted by Bridget at 23:04
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